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WGU Managing-Cloud-Security Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section Objectives Implementing Operational Capabilities, Procedures, and Training - Security operations workflows

1. Security awareness and training
2. Roles and responsibilities

Risk Analysis and Risk Management - Business continuity and disaster recovery

1. Threat assessments
2. Risk mitigation strategies

Secure Cloud Service Models - Cloud architecture security

1. PaaS security
2. IaaS security
3. SaaS security

Identity and Access Management - Cloud IAM controls

1. Privileged access management
2. Multi-factor authentication

Cloud Security Policies and Procedures - Cloud application security policies

1. Incident response procedures
2. Data handling standards

Legal, Compliance, and Ethical Concerns - Compliance and governance

1. HIPAA
2. GDPR
3. SOC 2

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WGU Managing Cloud Security (JY02) Sample Questions (Q139-Q144):

NEW QUESTION # 139

Which technology prevents the environment from being over-controlled with performance-degrading security measures for applications?

A. Runtime Application Self-Protection (RASP)
B. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)
C. Quality of Service (QoS)
D. Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS)

Answer: A

Explanation:

Runtime Application Self-Protection (RASP) prevents environments from being over-controlled with performance-degrading security measures. Managing Cloud guidance explains that RASP operates from within the application, monitoring behavior and responding to threats in real time.

Because RASP provides contextual awareness of application logic, it reduces the need for excessive external security controls such as heavy network filtering or constant scanning. This minimizes performance impact while maintaining effective protection against attacks like injection, unauthorized access, and misuse of application functions.

QoS manages traffic prioritization, DDoS describes an attack type, and IDS detects threats but does not prevent over-control. Therefore, RASP is the correct technology.

NEW QUESTION # 140

Which business area in the enterprise risk management (ERM) strategy is concerned with formal risk assessments when forming new or renewing existing vendor relationships?

A. Marketing
B. Procurement
C. Software development
D. Quality assurance

Answer: B

Explanation:

Theprocurementfunction is directly responsible for vendor selection and contract management, including risk assessments of new or renewed vendor relationships. This ensures that third-party providers meet security, compliance, and performance requirements.

Software development and quality assurance focus on product creation and validation. Marketing manages branding and outreach. None of these directly involve evaluating external vendor risk.

Procurement integrates due diligence, contract clauses, and performance monitoring into enterprise risk management. This reduces exposure to third-party threats and ensures compliance with frameworks such as ISO 27036 (supplier relationships) and NIST vendor risk management guidelines.

NEW QUESTION # 141

A group of DevOps engineers adopted the network-as-code methodology to manage network infrastructure.

During a code release, the engineers find a bug that is causing issues on a production site. Which safeguard will allow the engineers to restore functionality to the production site?

A. Code review
B. Code testing
C. Rollback
D. Staging

Answer: C

Explanation:

Arollbackis the safeguard that restores a system to its previous, stable state when a new code release introduces issues. In DevOps workflows, rollbacks provide a rapid recovery mechanism, reducing downtime and minimizing customer impact.

Staging, code review, and testing are preventive controls that reduce the likelihood of defects reaching production, but once a bug has already been deployed, rollback is the corrective control.

Rollback strategies often rely on version control systems, container orchestration, or infrastructure-as-code automation to quickly revert to earlier configurations. This practice is essential for maintaining reliability and availability, especially in cloud environments with continuous deployment pipelines.

NEW QUESTION # 142

What is the first phase of identity management that is used to assert the identity of the user?

A. Centralization
B. Provisioning
C. Decentralization
D. Deprovisioning

Answer: B

Explanation:

Provisioning is the first phase of identity management used to assert a user's identity. Managing Cloud documentation explains that identity management begins with establishing and registering a user within an identity system. Provisioning involves creating a digital identity, assigning unique identifiers, and associating credentials that allow the user to be recognized by systems and applications.

This phase forms the foundation for all subsequent identity and access management processes. Without proper provisioning, authentication and authorization cannot occur because the system has no trusted identity to evaluate. Provisioning also includes defining initial roles and access levels based on organizational policies.

Centralization and decentralization describe architectural approaches to managing identities rather than lifecycle phases. Deprovisioning occurs at the end of the lifecycle when access is revoked. Therefore, provisioning is correctly identified as the first phase where the user's identity is established and asserted.

NEW QUESTION # 143

An organization is reviewing a contract from a cloud service provider and wants to ensure that all aspects of the contract are adhered to by the cloud service provider. Which control will allow the organization to verify that the cloud provider is meeting its obligations?

A. Confidential computing
B. Regulatory oversight
C. Incident management
D. Continuous monitoring

Answer: D

Explanation:

Continuous monitoring is the control that allows organizations to actively verify that a cloud provider is fulfilling contractual and compliance obligations. This involves automated collection and analysis of operational, security, and performance data. It enables organizations to ensure that service-level agreements (SLAs) are being honored and that compliance requirements are being met in real time.

While regulatory oversight is provided by external authorities and incident management is reactive in nature, continuous monitoring is a proactive approach. It allows customers to maintain visibility into provider operations. Confidential computing focuses on data protection but does not verify contract adherence.

By employing continuous monitoring, organizations establish transparency and accountability. It also supports audit processes by providing evidence that controls remain effective over time. This reduces risk associated with outsourcing critical functions to a cloud provider and ensures resilience against potential provider-side failures.

NEW QUESTION # 144

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Valid Managing-Cloud-Security Test Review, Valid Managing-Cloud-Security Practice Questions

WGU Managing-Cloud-Security Exam Syllabus Topics:

WGU Managing-Cloud-Security Exam Questions Available At 25% Discount With Free Demo

WGU Managing Cloud Security (JY02) Sample Questions (Q139-Q144):

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