Is Oral Sex Haram In Islam
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Is Oral Sex Haram In Islam
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In the Name of Allah, the All-Merciful, the Mercy-Giving
All praise is due to Allah alone; peace and blessings be upon Our Prophet Muhammad.
Apart from anal sex and sex during menses, which are utterly prohibited in Islam, other sexual practices between spouses are permissible provided that they are not detrimental to either of them.
There are some recent researches that speak about some health problems and diseases caused by oral sex. If such results are true, then oral sex becomes prohibited due to the damage and harm it causes. Otherwise, it remains permissible; though some people may find it disgusting. It is also noteworthy that it is not permissible during this oral sex to lick najasah (ritual impurities) that may be charged from sex organs.
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IslamicAnswers.com: Islamic Advice
Islamic marriage advice and family advice
Posted by farooq Sharif • January 31, 2012 •
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Me and my Wife are married and have one question in our mind for many year and it is:
Is sucking the genital area haram in Islam?
I will appreciate if you can answer this question with proof from Islamic books.
My husband forces me to do oral sex with him. When all this started couple of years ago, I refused to do that but he gets angry on me and not only he separated his bed, he stop talking to me as well.
I a muslim women who is 20 years old and practice my and love my religion. Islam brings me peace and calmness i my mind i try to avoid sins. please don't judge me or be angered with me with my question, i just really need the answerS..
Is anal sex allowed in islam? Because the person whom i will be getting married he insists 2 do it I have read in many places its not allowed and our nikkah will be broken and we will no longer be husband and wife but on the other hand it…
Please click on this link for information on marital relations in Islam:
http://www.zawaj.com/straight_talk.html
It is not haraam, and don't swallow the sexual fluids. In this regard, the ruling is that the sexual fluids should not be ingested, but it also depends on your sect school of thought in some instances.
The basic ruling regarding the wife seeking pleasure of her husband’s sexual organ is that of permissibility, however, that which is feared is that this act may lead to possible oral intake of sperm or prostatic fluids. The Hanaabilah have indicated the permissibility of a wife kissing her husband’s penis, as is mentioned in ((al-Insaaf)) of al-Maardeenee [Volume 8, Page 33], and this is the opinion of Ibn ‘Aqeel and other than him. Also, Asbagh from the Maalikiyyah has indicated the permissibility of a man kissing his wife’s private area as is mentioned in ((Tafseer al-Qurtubee)) [Volume 12, Page 231].
Dr. Ali Jum`ah, professor of the Principles of Islamic Jurisprudence at Al-Azhar Univ., says further that licking, sucking and kissing spouse's sexual organs are all allowed, as long as it gives a person sexual gratification that will keep him away from Haram (unlawful) or starring at opposite sex (marriageable).
Shedding more light on this, Dr. Sabri `Abdul Ra’ouf, professor of Islamic Comparative Jurisprudence, at Al-Azhar Univ, says that it's allowed for the married couple to enjoy each other as long as what they do does not run counter to the teachings of Islam or violate the public norms.
Ok we all agree that a women can get all satisfaction and needs for the whole act..but as A Muslim if we use our parts like tongue in to something that is not clean(vagina)and then can we say the surahs and offer prayer with that tongue and if we do then how to clean that with water....its just confused some says its good amd some says its haram...My personal thing is that it shoupd not be done...
So, then all children born are haram and dirty as they are born out of mixture of semen and egg and comes out of vagina? Just curiousity
This question was posed to Al 'Allaamah Muhammad Ibn Naasir al-Albaani [may Allah have wide mercy on him].
There is no reference clearly prohibitting oral sex in the texts of Islam or the sayings of the Salaf. There are two possible reasons for this:
1. This practice was not known to the early Muslims, and has not become widely known except after the contemporary spread of pornography and obscenity of the dissbelievers as such questions were not asked before these times.
2. To a certain degree, this practice counts as foreplay (2), and Islam prohibits disclosing private secrets of sexual intimacy such as foreplay, intercourse, and so on.
With the above understanding, we may conclude (Allah knows best) that oral sex is permissible but highly disliked for the following reasoning:
1.One cannot declare the prohibition of something without clear evidence from the book of Sunnah.
2.Oral sex was not one of the known practices of the early righteous Muslims. In addition, it is known to be the practice of dogs and of disbelievers. The muslims are encouraged to imitate the righteous salaf and are discouraged from imitating disbelievers or animals in every matter. Thus oral sex is a disliked practice and a muslim should stay away from it..
3.Oral sex may be practiced as a form of foreplay- similar to kissing other parts of the body. But one may not indulge in it to a degree that makes it replace normal intercourse.
4.Oral sex should not be accompanied by swallowing genital excretions of either one of the two spouses. Some of these excretions (like the pre-seminal fluid&vaginal excretions) are najis (impure) and should not come into one's mouth or on one's clothes. Furthermore, a man may not ejaculate in his wife's mouth because the mouth is not a place for seed-cultivation, not to mention possible harmful effects of this.
5. Excessive oral sex causes harm to the genitals (more often for women than for men), and Islam prohibits causing harm.
But its up to you in the end.
There is no text making it haraam, so no one can say its haram.
I would draw a point of contention that there is too much inference with the first point that is made in this answer by the scholar. With the stories of sexual debauchery that were described in the instance of Prophet Lut's (as) city, we know that the people before the revelation of the Qur'an were practicing other forms of sex for centuries, if not thousands of years. This was a part of the questions being raised in Judaism and Christianity upon their people, as well.
Historically, we have research and accounts of artifacts and other recoveries in the pre-islamic era of drawings, carvings, statues, various edicts, and what not detailing the history of sex, which also involved oral sex. In ancient Egypt in fact, one of their myths actually involves oral sex. We also know that the Kama Sutra was composed between 400 BCE and 200 CE in which oral sex is described. And we know that the Arabs traded with those people and may have come into this knowledge. The ancient Greeks had their myths which were exchanged with the early Persians, as well, which contained sexual knowledge, in turn.
During the Arabic society in which Islam was revealed, from historical data including Islamic History, we know that the people of these times were involved in various forms of legal and illegal sexual acts and situations. Because the Romans as the time had actual laws regarding oral sex, there is the more than likely scenario that the Arabs, whose history suggest it, knew of oral sex whether they did it or not, too.
The fact that all the early Muslims were not born into Islam, would garner the supposition that being former Jews, Christian and other non-Muslims and/or living in other places, they more than likely, had this knowledge. This is not to say who did what specifically, but the point given is questionable that it is only a popular advent of our times that has come into light.
In point two, we know this not to be true from this instance in the hadith of Jabir.
Jabir b. Abdillah reported that once he was on an expedition with the Prophet salla Allahu ʿalayhi wa sallam, and when they were close to the city of Madinah, he sped on his mount. The Prophet salla Allahu ʿalayhi wa sallam asked him why he was in such a hurry to return home. Jabir replied, “I am recently married!” The Prophet salla Allahu ʿalayhi wa sallam asked, “To an older lady or a younger one?” [the Arabic could also read: “To a widow or a virgin?”], to which he replied, “A widow.”
The Prophet salla Allahu ʿalayhi wa sallam said, “But why didn’t you marry a younger girl, so that you could play with her, and she could play with you, and you could make her laugh, and she could make you laugh?”
He said, “O Messenger of Allah! My father died a martyr at Uhud, leaving behind daughters, so I did not wish to marry a young girl like them, but rather an older one who could take care of them and look after them.” The Prophet salla Allahu ʿalayhi wa salam replied, “You have made the correct choice.”
Jabir continues, “So when we were about to enter the city, the Prophet salla Allahu ʿalayhi wa sallam said to me, ‘Slow down, and enter at night, so that she who has not combed may comb her hair, and she who has not shaved may shave her private area .’ Then he said to me, ‘When you enter upon her, then be wise and gentle.’”
[Reported by al-Bukhari and Muslim, with various wordings, in their two Sahihs]
Though not graphically explicit, this is a clear instruction of sexual performance itself, thus belying the claim that "private secrets" were not discussed in these times. Though oral sex may not be discussed in hadiths, again, this point is ignoring the fact that the Prophet, himself, gave instruction as to what sexual encounters should be. There are more hadiths on these sexual subjects, as well.
On that basis, the "understanding" begins to fall apart. To suggest that Muslim people would become like the disbelievers or animals because they practice oral sex draws from where exactly, then? In my estimation, it is an opinion and dislike for oral sex, but nothing more given the context of understanding human historical sexuality.
In the answer of point 2, the scholar cannot make that claim concretely, just as I cannot claim otherwise as to who did what. Yet more than likely, we know they had the knowledge of it.
Point 4 bears examining because clothes can be washed of the impure and he should advise to that, too. Ejaculate from my understanding is disliked from entering the mouth because it is najis and not because it is not a place of "seed cultivation." The scholar should furthermore explain the "harmful effects." Are we talking emotional, physical, psychological and/or spiritual?
Part 5 of his advice bears to what evidence exactly? Has there ever been a study done that oral sex causes undue harm on men or women? The definition of "excessive" is conjectural, as well. An individual may think once a month is excessive whereas another may think once a day is normal.
If the scholar can provide a scientific basis or Islamic reasoning for point 5, then please include it. Using logic, he will have to concede the historical points, however.
I know this sound like a lot that I'm bringing up, but by leaving those avenues open to interpretation, this answer may misguide those who find pleasure from oral sex with their spouse as a halal way, though it can be thought of as makrooh provided they do not avoid that which is cautioned against, i.e. the swallowing of sexual fluids.
What is the reference to this Fatwa?
you said it it is known to be the practice of dogs and of disbelievers, so can you tell me what is the mean of this hadeeth:
من تشبه بقوم فهو منهم
i need explanation?
It means "whoever imitates (or does like) a people is among them ( or is one of them)"
Abu Abdul Bari
IslamicAnswers.com Editor
As far as I'm informed, the Prophet encouraged foreplay and apart from the private parts, there is not much
to play with, in the human anatomy. All games are futile except 3: Archery, horse riding and playing with
one's wife. Also, he said a man who enters his wife without foreplay is an animal. Now foreplay in all
cultures involves caressing the private parts. The sixth Imam or one of the Prophet's relatives, Imam
Sadiq was asked if a man can kiss his wife's vagina to which he replied with yes. In all sects, we have
the promotion of halal Sex toys for marriage. Subnanallah, there is absolutely no doubt that it is halal. The
spread of pornography in Western civilization has a lot do with the rigid morality of the Catholic church. so
sex came into the public. The practices itself are not all haram, what is haram, is that it is shown in public
and that it is heard and seen by other people. The concept of mutual sexual gratification is not unknown
to Muslims and has never been, thanks to Allah.
Not true that foreplay is restricted to the privates. Someone who thinks so is missing a lot. Foreplay includes kissing, and stroking or fondling many other body parts that have sensitive or erogenous zones.
Can you provide the source for this sex toy allowance?
the promotion of halal Sex toys for marriage.
From my understanding it is haraam to excite the husband or wife with sex toys used on each for orgasm and foreplay in specific sects, especially Shi'ites since you quoted the Jafar as-Saddiq (as), so you need to be careful in saying "all sects." Either partner can use any part of their bodies to touch, but sex toys that enter or stimulate are forbidden from what I know in most cases.
@porofessor x, can you give us a reference from Quran or hadith about what you are talking?
No, provided it is used as foreplay(1), no fluid is swallowed and enters the stomach(2)
While still on this topic, i would like someone to say something on lesbialism and bestiality... Unlike sodomy (gay), i have not seen any reference from the koran or hadith that speaks on bestiality and lesbialism.. Whilst i beleive that lesbialism and bestiality are as much condemnable as sodomy, there is no reference from the koran or sunnah, that speaks on lesbialism and bestiality or condemn it (according to my limited knowlede and few research., and if there is i would appreciate it if someone help me with the references)... Allah has condemned sodomy in the koran and label it as 'the worst sin ever committed by human' during the life time of prophet lut ... And for this sin, Allah destroyed the people with pain torment... Will i be right if i say since there is no ruling in the koran or hadith concerning lesbialism and bestiality,, then anyone who indulge him/her self in these two practices, is not doing haram??? .... Because people justify oral sex by saying that there is no reference in the koran and sunnah that made it haram and prophet muhammad neither did it nor condemn it ... Can i use this same excuse for bestiality and lesbialism???
You need to understand the stories in the Qur'an and of the many prophets sent on Earth as to why both issues your brought up are forbidden. Though to be honest, I think you should start your own post on that matter.
In short, I will say this of lesbianism:
Lesbianism is forbidden if you understand the natural order of making "pairs" of reproduction and the impressibility of letting women look at each other's privates. Since women cannot marry each other nor look at each other's privates, this is the basis against lesbian relationships from what I understand in Islam, though I am sure there are many other points I am missing.
Please log in and submit your questions as a separate post.
If sodomy is prohibited clearly in islam then it is not such a big problem to understand that lesbianism is also restricted i.e homosexuality is prohibited. Bestiality is also haram in islam. I cannot give you reference of that hadith but i have read it which clearly describe it haram.
Ha ha ha!!! Pardon me for just this please.. What am talking of is related to the original question, The issue of oral sex and it may be of vital importance to the original questioner.., because people are making oral sex halal since there is not a straight forward explicit statement in the koran or hadith that condemn it... So i want to know whether this same excuse can be used for bestiality and lesbialism, since (according to my limited knowledge and few research) there is no straight forward explicit statement in the koran and hadith that say anything on this act... And what confuse me the more is according to the present day sharia, the punishment for this crimes is death in islamic countries.... If we talk about adultory, we can reason with the sharia court if they sentence someone to death by stoning. Because even though there is no such ruling in the koran, there is such ruling in the hadith. An example is the hadith that speaks of a woman that came to the prophet and confess that she committed adultory. After the prophet turned away from her 3 times (indicating that she should go and repent), this woman 'insisted' by repetedly asking the same question and the sharia was finally applied on her.... . . . . . . . . . There are also countless verses of stoning to death in
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