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The volume of distribution is 50 liters: a. A quantitative estimate of the tissue localization of the drug Can be determined by measuring the plasma level of the drug total amount of drug in body D. A patient presents to the emergency room with acute bronchial asthma. The treating physician decides to administer a loading dose of Theophylline. Knowledge of which of the following parameters is needed for proper dosing? Initial dose of drug administered in order to compensate for drug distribution into the tissues. The process by which the amount of orally-administered drug is reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation a. First-order kinetics b. First-pass effect c. Pharmacokinetics d. Excretion e. The kinetics characteristic of elimination of ethanol and high doses of phenytoin and aspirin is known as a. Distribution b. Excretion c. First-pass effect d. First-order elimination e. Zero-order elimination. If the plasma concentration of a drug declines with first order kinetics, this means that: a. The half-life is the same regardless of plasma concentration b. The drug is largely metabolized in the liver after oral administration and has low bioavailability c. The rate of elimination is proportionate to the rate of administration at all times d. The drug is not distributed outside the vascular system. PHASE II t consists of conjugation reactions that result in polar, usually water soluble compounds that are therapeutically inactive. Deamination b. Acetylation c. Glucuronidation d. Methylation e. Sulfate conjugation. The rate of acetylation is important with respect to the duration of action of: a. The drug interaction of alcohol and disulfiram would be an example of which of the following? Induction of metabolizing enzymes b. Displacement from serum albumin c. Inhibition of metabolizing enzyme d. Inhibition of uptake into adrenergic neuron. The expected effect of toxic hepatitis on the rate of drug metabolism by the liver: a. Increased b. Decreased c. Unchanged d. If a drug is repeatedly administered at dosing intervals equal to its elimination half-life, the number of doses required for the plasma concentration of the drug to reach the steady state is: a. Potency b. ED50 c. Efficacy d. Therapeutic index. The maximum effect of the drug may be produced even if not all receptors are bound in the presence of which of the following: a. Full agonist b. Partial agonist c. Spare receptors d. Inert binding site. The receptor theory assumes that all receptors should be occupied to produce a maximal response. Na-K channel part of the nicotinic Ach receptor. Drugs that interact with and activate receptors Drugs that possess BOTH affinity and efficacy Full an agonist with maximal efficacy Partial an agonist with less then maximal efficacy even when all the receptors are occupied by the partial agonist. Two drugs act on the same tissue or organ via activation of different receptors in effects that are qualitatively the opposite of one another. This represents which of the following types of antagonism? Physiologic b. Competitive c. Irreversible antagonist d. Chemical antagonist. Antagonists interact with the receptor but do NOT change the receptor they have affinity but NOefficacy. Competes with agonist for receptor Surmountable with increasing agonist concentration Agonist affinity is lower because a higher dose of agonist is required, in the presence of antagonist, to achieve receptor occupancy Ex: Propranolol. Phenoxybenzamin e t. The pharmacokinetic value that most reliably reflects the amount of drug reaching the target tissue after oral administration is the a. Peak blood concentration b. Time to peak blood concentration c. Product of the volume of distribution and the first-order rate constant d. Volume of distribution e. Area under the blood concentration-time curve. Peak blood concentration Cmax rate of absorption b. Time to peak blood concentration Tmax rate of absorption c. Area under the blood concentrationtime curve. Which of the following terms is best described as a rapid reduction in the effect of a given dose of a drug after only one or two doses a. Supersensitivity b. Tachyphylaxis c. Tolerance d. Anaphylaxis e. Tachyphylaxis repeated administration of the same dose of a drug results in a reduced effect of the drug over time. Tolerance drug loses its effectiveness and an increased dose is necessary to produce same response. The interaction between an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor and acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction would be an example of: a. Addition b. Potentiation c. Competitive antagonism d. Non-competitive antagonism. Aspirin is a weak organic acid with a pKaof 3. What percentage of a given dose will be in the lipid soluble form at a stomach pH of 2. Aspirin is a weak acid with a pKaof 3. Given a drug with a volume of distribution of 80 L and clearance of 1. Which of the following is therapeutic action of beta adrenergic receptor blockers in the treatment of angina pectoris? Dilatation of coronary arteries b. Decrease in the amount of catecholamines c. Decrease in requirement of the myocardium for oxygen d. Increase in the sensitivity to catecholamines. Dilatation of coronary arteries nitroglycerin b. Which of the following drugs should be used with extra caution in the treatment of hypertension in a diabetic patient? Hydralazine b. Guanethidine c. Propranolol -d. Propranolol non-selective B Blocker decreased secretion of insulin -- diabetes d. Which of the following is reduced by the action of sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents? Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant that has a high anticholinergic activity, is sedating and is biotransformed to a longacting active product? Clozapine b. Amitriptyline c. Nortriptyline d. Which of the following is a tricyclic antidepressant that has a high anticholinergic activity, is sedating and is biotransformed to a long-acting active product? Clozapine antipsychotics b. Amitriptyline TCA c. Nortriptyline TCA d. Trazodone MAO inhibitor. Which of the following has the lowest incidence of extrapyramidal reactions, but has the highest incidence of agranulocytosis among antipsychotic agents? Fluphenazine b. Pimozide c. Clozapine d. Fluphenazine more EPS b. Pimozide more EPS c. Molindone few EPS. Which of the following drugs inhibits cyclooxygenaseirreversibly? Aspirin b. Ibuprofen c. Prednisone d. Indomethacin e. Which of the following drugs inhibits cyclooxygenase irreversibly a. Herpes simplex of the eye b. Status asthmaticus c. Severe allergic rhinitis d. Nephrotic syndrome e. Adrenal insufficiency. Herpes simplex of the eye infection b. Which of the following characterizes local anesthetics? They generally block myelinated before unmyelinated fibers b. They are generally administered along with epinephrine to prolong its action c. The primary action is on calcium permeability d. Do not readily cross the blood-brain barrier. Block conduction in the following order: small myelinated axons, nonmyelinated axons, large myelinated axons Unwanted. Which of the following characterizes local anesthetics a. They generally block myelinated before unmyelinatedfibers b. The primary action is on calcium permeability. Which of the following is commonly used to treat both absence and generalized tonic-clonic seizures? Phenytoin b. Valproate c. Carbamazepine d. Clonazepam e. Phenytoin partial, tonic-clonic b. Carbamazepine partial, tonic-clonic d. Clonazepam partial, absence e. Phenobarbital partial, tonic-clonic. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of effective anti-psychotic agents? Decreases acetylcholine in the CNS b. Blocks dopamine receptor sites in the CNS c. Makes acetylcholine more available in the CNS d. Facilitates the use of norepinephrine in the CNS e. Makes dopamine more available in the CNS. Typical antipsychotics dopamine 2 receptor antagonists ex. Haloperidol Chlorpromazine Atypical antipsychotics Dopamine 2 receptor antagonists serotonin 5-HT receptor antagonists ex. Which of the following is the mechanism of action of effective anti-psychotic agents a. Which of the following drugs can cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome, megaloblasticanemia, ataxia, and gingival hyperplasia? Phenobarbital b. Disulfiram c. Phenytoin d. Valproic acid e. Which of the following drugs can cause Stevens-Johnson syndrome, megaloblastic anemia, ataxia, and gingival hyperplasia? Phenobarbital sedation, enzyme induction, tolerance, dependence b. Disulfiram- inhibits alcohol dehydrogenase; flushing from acetaldehyde with ethanol intake c. Phenytoin- teratogenic d. Valproic acid- GI distress, hepatotoxicity rare but possible fatal , enzyme inhibition, teratogenic e. Carbamazepine- diplopia, ataxia, enzyme induction, blood dyscrasia. A pure opioid antagonist with a greater affinity for receptors and used for acute opioid overdose a. Morphine b. Naloxone c. Codeine d. Dextromethorpan e. Morphine strong opiod agonist b. Naloxone antagonist c. Codeine moderate opioid agonist d. Dextromethorpan NMDA receptor blocker e. Diphenoxylate u receptor agonist lomotil. Agitation b. Hyperthermia c. Hyperreflexia d. Bradycardia e. Bradycardia tachycardia e. A patient who underwent percutaneous coronary angioplasty with placement of a stent in a coronary vessel was started on clopidogrel. This drug exerts its antithrombotic effect through which of the following mechanisms a. Irreversible inhibition of ADP receptor b. Inhibition of thromboxane synthesis c. Conversion of plasminogen to plasmin e. Posttranslational modification of vitamin Kdependent clotting factors. The effect of heparin in a patient who suddenly presented with gastrointestinal hemorrhage may be promptly reversed with which of the following: a. Vitamin K b. Ascorbic acid c. EDTA d. Protamine e. Folic Acid. Vitamin K - warfarin b. EDTA lead poisoning d. Protamine - heparin e. Which of the following is most useful for patients with red cell deficiency caused by renal disease or depression of the bone marrow a. Erythropoietin b. Hemosiderin c. Transferrin d. Folic acid e. Vitamin B Erythropoietin kidney cant produce EPO b. Hemosiderin - iron-storage complex within cells c. Transferrin - iron transport protein Ferritin-storage protein d. Vitamin B 12 for pernicious anemia. A bactericidal glycoprotein with a narrow spectrum of activity and is used for serious infections caused by methicillin-resistant staphylococci MRSA , penicillin-resistant pneumococci, and Clostridium difficile a. Aztreonam b. Clavulanic acid c. Imipinem d. Cefepime e. Aztreonam- monobactam; no activity against gram positive bacteria or anaerobes, primarily directed against enterobacter and aerobic gram negative rods Clavulanic acid beta-lactamase inhibitor used in fixed combination with penicillins - almost devoid of antibacterial activity. Imipinem- carbapenem meropenem, ertapenem ; wide activity gram positive, negative anaerobes; carbapenems- drug of choice for enterobacter. A bactericidal glycoprotein with a narrow spectrum of activity and is used for serious infections caused by methicillin resistant staphylococci MRSA , penicillin-resistant pneumococci, and Clostridium difficile a. Which of the following cephalosporins is highly effective against pseudomonas? Cefazolin b. Cefuroxime c. Ceftazidime d. Cefaclor e. Ceftazidime 3rd , enhanced gram -, for Pseudomonas d. Ceftriaxone 3rd, enhanced gram negative act. Which of the following antibiotics inhibit microbial protein synthesis by binding to the 30s ribosomal subunit a. Clindamycin b. Erythromycin c. Chloramphenicol d. Tetracycline e. Lincosamides clindamycin Streptogramins dalfopristin Oxazolidones linezolid. Which of the following antibiotics inhibit microbial protein synthesis by binding to the 30S ribosomal subunit? Clindamycin 50s b. Erythromycin 50S c. Chloramphenicol 50s d. Tetracycline S e. Linezolid 50S. Auditory or vestibular damage b. Acute tubular necrosis c. Respiratory paralysis in high doses d. Contact dermatitis e. Contact dermatitis - neomycin e. Encephalopathy does not cross blood brain barrier. Ethambutol b. Rifampicin c. Streptomycine d. Dapsone e. Urinary tract infection due to Chlamydia trachomatis will NOT respond to which of the following drug? Tetracycline b. Nitrofurantoin d. Which of the following drugs is a reverse transcriptase inhibitor that is useful in the treatment of Hepatitis B infection a. Amantadine b. Ganciclovir c. Interferon-alpha e. Amantadine inhibitor of viral uncoating- influenza A b. Ganciclovir antiherpesvirus nucleoside analogue c. Interferon-alpha immunoregulatorfor hepa C inf e. Acyclovir - antiherpesvirus nucleoside analogue. The use of chloroquine in Plasmodium vivaxinfection is primarily targeted on the elimination of which of the following forms of the parasite a. Secondary tissue schizonts b. Exoerythrocyticschizonts c. Erythrocytic stage d. Asexual forms e. Liver stages. Radical cure of acute vivax and ovale malaria Chloroquine eradicates erythrocytic forms Primaquine - eradicates liver hypnozoites and prevent subsequent relapse. Which of the following is the drug of choice for Schistosomahaematobium? Praziquantel b. Mebendazole c. Metronidazole d. Diethlcarbamazine e. Praziquantel tapeworm infections b. Mebendazole nematode infections c. Metronidazole amebiasis, giardiasis, trichomoniasis d. Diethlcarbamazine - filariasis e. Albendazole nematode infections. Drug of choice for the relief of acute exacerbations of asthma a. Terbutaline b. Ipatropium bromide c. Cromolyn sodium d. Montelukast e. Ipatropiumbromide for COPD c. Cromolynsodium - controller d. Montelukast - controller e. Prednisone - controller. Which of the following drugs is used to decrease uric acid production in gout? Allopurinol b. Aspirin c. Colchicine d. Probenecid e. Which of the following drugs is used to decrease uric acid production in gout a. Treatment for thyrotoxicosis does not include which of the following drugs a. Radioactive iodine b. Thyroglobulin c. Propylthiouracil d. Potassium iodide e. Thyroglobulin protein synthesized by thyroid follicular cells and secreted at the apical surface into the colloid space c. Action of Sulfonylurea hypoglycemic agents does NOT include a. Stimulate release of endogenous insulin b. Reduce glucagon release c. Increase functional insulin receptors in peripheral tissues d. Increase target tissue sensitivity to insulin e. Closing of potassium channels in the pancreatic B cell membrane. Increase target tissue sensitivity to insulin biguanides -metformin; TZDs rosiglitazone e. Which of the following is most likely to cause hypoglycemia when used as a monotherapy for Type II diabetes? Acarbose b. Glimepiride c. Metformin d. Rosiglitazone e. Acarbose GI distress b. Metformin GI distress, sl. Weight loss d. Rosiglitazone weight gain e. Miglitol GI distress. The hypoglycemic agent of choice in pregnant women a. Biguanides b. Sulfonylurea c. Insulin d. Which of the following is NOT an effect of muscarinic blocking drugs? Miosis b. Constipation c. Reduced salivation and gastric secretion d. Urinary retention e. Which of the following is NOT a direct-acting cholinergic agonist? Bethanechol b. Carbachol c. Pilocarpine d. Neostigmine e. Neostigmine cholinesterase inhibitor e. Cause of death from exposure to a high concentration of organophosphate insecticide will most likely be: a. Cardiac arrhythmia b. Respiratory failure c. Hypertension d. Renal failure e. Gastrointestinal hemorrhage. Acute toxic effects are those of muscarinic excess followed rapidly by CNS involvement; respiration in particular may be impaired. Cause of death from exposure to a high concentration of organophosphate insecticide will most likely be a. A patient with warm septic shock presents with hypotension and generalized vasodilation. High dose Dopamine intravenous infusion was started. Which adrenoceptor does dopamine act to constrict the vessels? Beta-1 b. Alpha-1 c. Alpha-2 d. A patient rushed to the emergency room for anaphylactic shock was given intramuscular epinephrine. Which of the following are expected effects of the drug a. Bronchodilation b. Vasodilation c. Decreased cardiac contractility d. Pupillary constriction e. Uterine contraction. Vasodilation vasoconstriction c. Pupillaryconstriction dilatation e. Uterine contraction uterine relaxation. Which of the following is the drug of choice for a hypertensive patient with benign prostatic hypertrophy and urinary obstruction? Metoprolol b. Clonidine c. Prazosin d. Ephedrine e. Metoprolol 1 selective blocker b. Clonidine centrally acting 2 agonist c. Prazosin 1 selective antagonist, decrease tone in the smooth muscle of the bladder neck and improves urine flow. Ephedrine inhibitor of catecholamine storage e. Methlydopa centrally acting 2 agonist. A patient diagnosed to have pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla causing excessive release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, was started on a non-selective alphaantagonist, an example of which is a. Yohimbine b. Methyldopa c. Terazosin d. Phenoxybenzamine e. A patient diagnosed to have pheochromocytoma, a tumor of the adrenal medulla causing excessive release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, was started on a non-selective alpha-antagonist, an example of which is a. Yohimbine 2 selective antagonist b. Methyldopa centrally acting 2 agonist c. Terazosin 1 selective antagonist d. Phenoxybenzamine non-selective antagonist e. Clonidine centrally acting 2 agonist. The following is NOT a clinical use of beta-adrenoceptor antagonists: a. Portal hypertension b. Glaucoma c. Hypothyroidism d. Chronic heart failure e. Hypothyroidism hyperthyroidism, increases peripheral conversion of T4 to T3 d. Postsynaptic activation of Alpha-1 receptors will lead to the following cellular effects a. Decreased intracellular calcium b. IncreasedcAMP c. Inhibition of phospholipase activity e. Inhibition of Phosphodiesterase III. IncreasedcAMP ,2 adrenoceptors c. Which of the following drugs will decrease heart rate in a normal heart but has little or no effect in a denervatedheart? Phenylephrine b. Isoproterenol c. Dobutamine d. Epinephrine e. Which of the following drugs will decrease heart rate in a normal heart but has little or no effect in a denervated heart a. Phenylephrine causes intense vasoconstriction leading to reflex HR b. Isoproterenol - c. Dobutamine - d. Epinephrine - e. Prazosin - no effect. Which among the following is the most potent diuretic? Furosemide b. Hydrochlorothiazide c. Spironolactone d. Acetazolamide e. Which among the following is the most potent diuretic a. Furosemide loop diuretic b. Hydrochlorothiazide thiazide diuretics c. Spironolactone Postassium sparing diuretics d. Acetazolamide carbonic anhydrase inhibitor e. Eplerenone potassium sparing diuretics. Which of the following is a direct centrally-acting sympatholytic agent? Methyldopa b. Guanethedine c. Reserpine d. Propranolol e. A major air pollutant which can cause headache, tachycardia, and syncope a. Carbon monoxide b. Nicotine c. Nitrogen dioxide d. Ozone e. Sulfur dioxide. A patient manifesting with wristdrop, anorexia, anemia, tremor, weight loss and gastrointestinal symptoms is most likely suffering from which of the following a. Acute mercury poisoning b. Chronic mercury poisoning c. Iron poisoning d. Chronic lead poisoning e. Chronic arsenic poisoning. A child with diagnosed to have acute lead poisoning with signs and symptoms of encephalopathy should be given a. Acetylcysteine b. Deferoxamine c. Penicillamine e. Acetylcysteine paracetamol poisoning b. Deferoxamine - Iron c. Penicillamine - Copper e. Succimer - Cadmium. A patient who suddenly deteriorated due to respiratory depression after being given diazepam may benefit from this antidote a. Flumazenil b. Acetylcysteine c. Atropine d. Oxygen e. Atropine organophosphate poisoning d. Pralidoxime organophosphate poisoning. Which of the following will confer passive immunity? Diphtheriatoxoid b. Measles vaccine c. Tetanus antitoxin d. Oral polio vaccine e. Purified protein derivative. Which of the following will confer passive immunity a. Oral polio vaccine. Clomiphene b. Diethylstilbesterol c. Danazol d. Tamoxifen e. Clomiphene - SERM b. Diethylstilbestrol non-steroidal estrogen c. Danazol - antiandrogen d. Tamoxifen - SERM e. Raloxifene SERM. Estrogen used in most combined hormonal contraceptives a. Ethinylestradiol c. Estrone d. Which of the phases of the cell cycle is most resistant to most chemotherapeutic agents and requires increased drug dose to obtain response? S phase b. G0 phase c. G1 phase d. G2 phase. By which of the following mechanisms do vinca alkaloids work in cancer chemotherapy? Inhibition of function of microtubules b. Damage and prevention of repair of DNA c. Inhibition of purine synthesis d. Inhibition of DNA gyrase e. Inhibition of protein synthesis. By which of the following mechanisms do vinca alkaloids work in cancer chemotherapy a. Damage and prevention of repair of DNA topoisomerase inhibitors c. Inhibition of purinesynthesis -mercaptopurine d. Doxorubicin, a drug used in the treatment of Hodgkins disease belongs to which group of antineoplastic drugs a. Alkylating agents b. Antimetabolites c. Plant alkaloids d. Antibiotics e. Alkylatingagents cyclophosphamide b. Antimetabolites methotrexate c. Plantalkaloids vincristine d. A patient in heart failure was given a diuretic which inhibits Na reabsorption and potassium secretion by acting as a competitive antagonist of a receptor located at the blood side of the tubule. The drug is most likely a. Spironolactone b. Amiloride d. Furosemide e. Hydrochlorothiazide was prescribed when lifestyle modification failed to lower the blood pressure of a patient with Stage I hypertension. Adverse effects of this drug include which of the following: a. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis b. Hyperuricemia c. Hypoglycemia d. Hypocalcemia e. Decrease in serum cholesterol and LDL. Hypokalemic metabolic acidosis alkalosis b. Hypoglycemia hyperglycemia d. Hypocalcemia hypercalcemia e. A patient diagnosed to have essential hypertension was receiving enalapril, furosemide, metoprolol and clonidine. Good control of hypertension made the doctor decide to discontinue one drug. Gradual withdrawal of which drug will prevent rebound hypertension: a. Enalapril b. Furosemide c. Metoprolol d. An anti-hypertensive agent which acts through nitric oxide, dilates arterioles but not veins, and causes a lupus-erythematosus-like syndrome a. Minoxidil b. Nitroprusside c. Fenoldapam d. Hydralazine e. A year old male was admitted in moderate cardiorespiratory distress due to heart failure secondary to Rheumatic Heart Disease. Diuretics b. Beta- adrenoceptor agonists c. Calcium channel blockers d. ACE inhibitors e. The rest of the lipid profile was normal. This patient will most likely benefit from which of the following drugs a. Lovastatin b. Ezetimibe c. Niacin d. Most potent H2 blocker with negligible binding with CYP enzyme a. Cimetidine b. Famotidine c. Ranitidine d. A laxative usually given as suppository and promotes peristaltic action and defecation in minutes a. Methylcellulose b. Bisacodyl c. Magnesium sulfate d. Soften fecal material via detergent action that allows water to penetrate stool e. Docusate sodium. Direct irritation of intestinal mucosa leading to peristalsis Bisacodyl Dulcolax,Senokot. Methylcellulose bulk-former b. Magnesiumsulfate d. Lactulose non-absorbable sugar. PPI, Amoxicillin, Metronidazole for days b. PPI for days; Clarithromycin and Amoxicillin for weeks. Which of the following is NOT a drug mechanism used in the treatment of parkinsonism? Amantadine stimulates release of dopamine from storage sites b. Bromocriptine stimulates dopamine receptors c. Levodopa enhances the synthesis of dopamine d. Selegeline is an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase. Bromocriptine stimulates dopamine receptors. Amantadinestimulates release of dopamine from storage sites b. Bromocriptinestimulates dopamine receptors c. Levodopaenhances the synthesis of dopamine d. Selegelineis an inhibitor of monoamine oxidase. Do not affect the dopaminergic pathways directly Used to treat levodopa-induced dykinesias by global blockade of excitatory NMDA receptors. Aluminum and calcium salts inhibit the intestinal absorption of which of the following agents? Isoniazid b. Phenomymethyl penicillin c. Erythromycin d. An important pharmacokinetic feature of Tetracyclines is the interaction with foods high in CALCIUM such as dairy products and with such medicines as ANTACIDS that contain divalent and trivalent cations bec of impaired absorption, it is best taken on an empty stomach Once tetracyclines are in the circulation, it can cause sequestration of the drug in bone and teeth. Which of the following mechanisms is associated with bacterial resistance to B-lactampenicillins? Which of the following drugs exhibit linear kinetics? Cefoperazone b. Chloramphenicol c. Clindamycin d. Amikacin kidney. Ceftriaxone b. Meropenem c. SINGLE very large dose can have a profound therapeutic effect and may be sufficient to eliminate the infection. Ceftriaxone beta lactam cidal time b. Meropenem beta-lactam cidal-time c. Erythromycin macrolide bacteriostatic d. Gentamicin aminoglycoside cidal-conc. Which of the following anti-epileptic drugs have active metabolites that are clinically significant? Phenobarbital c. In the treatment of hypertensive emergency crisis , the drug of choice is: a. Drug with a low therapeutic index that induces delayed afterdepolarization in cardiac tissue: a. An anti-arrhythmic drug known to produce a potentially fatal form of pulmonary fibrosis a. Lidocaine b. Amiodarone c. Sotalol d. Alkylating agents ex cyclophosphamide melphalan platinum compounds ex cisplatin carboplatin t. Cyclophosphamide c. Vinblastine agent that inhibits microtubule polymerization. In cancer chemotherapy, alkylating agents are used in combination regimens with anti-metabolites to treat patients with certain cancers because they: a. Do not cause hair root toxicity b. Are selectively toxic to cancer cells c. Do not damage the bone marrow cells d. Are not cell cycle specific. Hallucinations behavioral restlessness, hyperactivity c. Postural hypotension d. Which of the following provides information about the variation in sensitivity to a drug within the population studied? A concentration effect curve applies only to a single individual at one time or to an average individual The curve represents the effects and dose of a drug within an individual animal or tissue rather in a population. A patient is to undergo day surgery for a short procedure, and intravenous anesthesia will be used. A short-acting drug that appears to affect GABAergic neurotransmission and is often used for day surgery because patients are not hampered by post-operative nausea and malaise: a. Fentanyl analgesic b. Ketamine IV, dissociative anesthesia, hallucinations c. Propofol IV d. Thiopental IV, drowsiness. When treating a patient who has been exposed to a chemical agent with known toxicity, the primary determinant of whether or not a toxic effect will be seen is: a. Three symptoms of atropine intoxication are: a. Both acetylcholine and norepinephrine affect cardiac force of contraction. They do this by influencing: a. Reserpine decreases arterial pressure by: a. Open navigation menu. Close suggestions Search Search. User Settings. Final Pharmacology. Uploaded by trialqw. The document provides study and review tips for pharmacology, including focusing on principles of pharmacology rather than memorization, being able to identify main drug classes and side effects, and recognizing intended drug effects. It discusses important pharmacokinetic concepts like volume of distribution, loading doses, first-pass effect, and zero-order versus first-order elimination kinetics. Key aspects of pharmacodynamics are also covered, such as mechanisms of drug action at the molecular level, parameters of drug effect like potency ED50 and efficacy Emax , and factors that influence drug interactions like induction and inhibition of drug metabolizing enzymes. AI-enhanced description. Document Information click to expand document information 1. Original Description: Final Pharmacology review med medicine exam board licensure. Did you find this document useful? Is this content inappropriate? Download now. Jump to Page. Search inside document. Leonila A. Inert binding site e. Supersensitivity frequently follows chronic reduction of receptor stimulation b. Tachyphylaxis repeated administration of the same dose of a drug results in a reduced effect of the drug over time c. Tolerance drug loses its effectiveness and an increased dose is necessary to produce same response d. Anaphylaxis - immediate hypersensitivity which is antibody mediated e. Prazosin 1 selective antagonist, decrease tone in the smooth muscle of the bladder neck and improves urine flow d. DES e. Clonidine e. PPI for days; Clarithromycin and Amoxicillin for weeks d. Rating: 2 out of 5 stars. Discharge Summary: I. Clinical Abstract Document 2 pages. The Abdomen Document 30 pages. Yogasanas Notes Document 34 pages. Pharmacology Lecture Notes Document pages. Teach Manual Document 78 pages. MCQ Document 5 pages. Hamza Alhamad. MCQ Pharmacology Document pages. Pharmacology Document 74 pages. Pharmacology MCQs Document 63 pages. General Pharmacology Viva Document 11 pages. Pharma Questions Document 5 pages. Document 20 pages. Pharmacology Review Document pages. General Pharmacology Document pages. Pharmacology Document 25 pages. Pharmacotherapeutics Phpapp02 Document 14 pages. Adrenergic and Nonadrenergic Document 49 pages. Pharmacology Mcqs Document 7 pages. General Pharmacology Document 7 pages. Cholinergic MCQ Www. Pharmacotherapeutics PDF Document 30 pages. 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New Beginning Counseling Services Edited. Shanda A. Mental Health Screening Questionnaire 1. Has person ever heard voices no one else could hear or seen objects or things which others could YES NO not see? Has person ever been depressed for weeks at a time, lost interest or pleasure in most activities, had YES NO trouble concentrating and making decisions? Has person ever experienced any strong fears e. Has person ever given in to an aggressive urge or impulse, on more than one occasion that result in YES NO serious harm to others or led to the destruction of property? Has person ever had persistent, lasting thought or impulse to do something over and over that YES NO caused considerable distress and interfered with normal routines, work, social relations? Risk of Exposure to Infectious Diseases Person reports a history of behaviors or circumstances that has potentially exposed person to Infectious diseases e. Person reports having been diagnosed with an infectious disease e. Additional Mandated Report Required? Have you been thinking about how or what way you might do this? Have you ever attempted or started to attempt suicide when other people were around, like at home with parents, in a hospital, or in a group home with staff? Risk State 1. Client is at a higher than usual risk for dying of suicide due to current life-circumstances. Client is at a lower than usual baseline risk for dying of suicide. Domestic Relations Court Involvement i. Name Relationship Still living? Use additional page or other side if needed. What are the factors that led to the needs areas and your plan to address them? Draw conclusions and make treatment recommendations. This document summarizes a clinical intake assessment for counseling services. It collects information on the client's name, demographic details, health insurance, gender identity, ethnicity, culture, language, religion, presenting problem, reason for referral, what brings them to the center, and how they learned about the center. It also includes a mental health screening questionnaire and substance use history. The assessment aims to gather comprehensive information to evaluate the client's needs and inform treatment. Titlu original new beginning counseling services edited. Vi se pare util acest document? Salt la pagina. Melinda Drake. Semilunar Coronally Repositioned Flap Document 5 pagini. What Addiction Meansto Me Document 2 pagini. Title Proposal Quanlitative and Quantitative Research - 3. Substance Related and Addictive Disorder Document 49 pagini. Substance Use Disorders Notes Document 5 pagini. Y Document 8 pagini. Addiction Assessment Document 29 pagini. Substance Dependence Document 16 pagini. Addiction and Substance Abuse Document 49 pagini. Health 2 PDF Document 5 pagini. Ds Ob 5 Document 3 pagini. Substance Use Document 3 pagini. Drug Education and Vice Control Document 16 pagini. Drug-Free Workplace Brochure Document 20 pagini. Mechanisms of Addiction Document 26 pagini. Stimulants Document 3 pagini. Substance Related Abuse Document 2 pagini. Cannabis and Hallucinogen Related Document 22 pagini. Biology Investigatory Project Class 12 Document 26 pagini. MHN 14 Document 18 pagini. Suhein Beck. Evaluare: 5 din 5 stele. Human Nature Refelction Document 10 pagini. Group Proposal Document 7 pagini. Therapists Evaluation Document 5 pagini. Medical Reimbursement Document 7 pagini. Anatomy Quiz 1 Document 4 pagini. Hyperthyroidism Document 11 pagini. NCP Ebuen Document 3 pagini. New School Health Forms Document 24 pagini. TRuncal Ataxia Document 2 pagini. Drug Study - Cefuroxime Document 2 pagini. Pediatric Nursing Procedure Manual Document 12 pagini. Cases Compilation Document 77 pagini. Apical Pulse WS Document 2 pagini. Teen Depression Document 8 pagini. Brochure v2 Document 2 pagini.

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